Computer Organizations- Question Paper- 4

 Computer Organizations- Question Paper- 4

 

Topics: Peripheral Devices & I/O Interface


Part A –MCQs (with Answers)

  1. A peripheral device is a device that is:
    A. Part of CPU
    B. Connected externally to the computer
    C. Inside ALU
    D. Part of cache
    Answer: B
  2. Which of the following is an input device?
    A. Printer
    B. Monitor
    C. Keyboard
    D. Plotter
    Answer: C
  3. Which device is used for hard copy output?
    A. Scanner
    B. Printer
    C. Mouse
    D. MICR
    Answer: B
  4. A scanner is a:
    A. Processing device
    B. Input device
    C. Output device
    D. Storage device
    Answer: B
  5. Plotter is mainly used for:
    A. Audio output
    B. Video editing
    C. Large drawings
    D. Typing
    Answer: C
  6. Which is a pointing device?
    A. Mouse
    B. Printer
    C. Speaker
    D. RAM
    Answer: A
  7. MICR is used in:
    A. Hospitals
    B. Banks
    C. Schools
    D. Homes
    Answer: B
  8. OCR stands for:
    A. Optical Code Reader
    B. Optical Character Recognition
    C. Output Character Reader
    D. Online Code Recognition
    Answer: B
  9. I/O stands for:
    A. Input/Output
    B. Internal/Outer
    C. Input/Outer
    D. Interface Output
    Answer: A
  10. The I/O interface connects:
    A. CPU and memory
    B. CPU and peripherals
    C. RAM and ROM
    D. ALU and CU
    Answer: B
  11. Which is an output device?
    A. Keyboard
    B. Mouse
    C. Monitor
    D. Scanner
    Answer: C
  12. Joystick is mainly used for:
    A. Printing
    B. Gaming
    C. Scanning
    D. Storage
    Answer: B
  13. Touch screen is:
    A. Only input
    B. Only output
    C. Both input and output
    D. Storage
    Answer: C
  14. Speaker is a:
    A. Input device
    B. Output device
    C. Storage device
    D. Interface
    Answer: B
  15. Which is a storage peripheral?
    A. Hard disk
    B. Mouse
    C. Keyboard
    D. Plotter
    Answer: A
  16. USB is a type of:
    A. CPU
    B. Interface
    C. Software
    D. Memory
    Answer: B
  17. Full form of USB:
    A. Universal Serial Bus
    B. Unique System Bus
    C. Universal System Base
    D. User Serial Bus
    Answer: A
  18. Which transfer method sends one bit at a time?
    A. Parallel
    B. Serial
    C. Block
    D. Direct
    Answer: B
  19. Which transfer sends multiple bits at once?
    A. Serial
    B. Parallel
    C. Single
    D. Simplex
    Answer: B
  20. Programmed I/O is also called:
    A. Polling
    B. DMA
    C. Interrupt
    D. Cache I/O
    Answer: A
  21. Interrupt driven I/O reduces:
    A. Memory
    B. CPU idle time
    C. Disk size
    D. Cache speed
    Answer: B
  22. DMA stands for:
    A. Direct Memory Access
    B. Data Memory Access
    C. Direct Module Access
    D. Disk Memory Access
    Answer: A
  23. DMA transfers data between:
    A. CPU and ALU
    B. Memory and I/O device
    C. Cache and register
    D. CU and RAM
    Answer: B
  24. Which signal indicates device needs attention?
    A. Interrupt
    B. Clock
    C. Reset
    D. Halt
    Answer: A
  25. I/O ports are used to:
    A. Store programs
    B. Connect peripherals
    C. Increase speed
    D. Compile code
    Answer: B
  26. Memory-mapped I/O uses:
    A. Separate address space
    B. Same address space as memory
    C. Cache only
    D. Register only
    Answer: B
  27. Isolated I/O uses:
    A. Same address space
    B. Separate address space
    C. Cache space
    D. Virtual space
    Answer: B
  28. Handshaking is used for:
    A. Error
    B. Synchronization
    C. Storage
    D. Coding
    Answer: B
  29. Buffer is used to:
    A. Delete data
    B. Temporarily store data
    C. Print data
    D. Scan data
    Answer: B
  30. Which is NOT an input device?
    A. Keyboard
    B. Mouse
    C. Monitor
    D. Scanner
    Answer: C
  31. Which is NOT an output device?
    A. Printer
    B. Plotter
    C. Speaker
    D. Trackball
    Answer: D
  32. Trackball is a:
    A. Output device
    B. Pointing input device
    C. Storage device
    D. Display
    Answer: B
  33. Light pen works with:
    A. Paper
    B. Monitor screen
    C. CPU
    D. Printer
    Answer: B
  34. Barcode reader is used for:
    A. Audio
    B. Code scanning
    C. Printing
    D. Gaming
    Answer: B
  35. Which method gives highest I/O speed?
    A. Programmed I/O
    B. Interrupt I/O
    C. DMA
    D. Polling
    Answer: C
  36. I/O controller is also called:
    A. Interface
    B. Compiler
    C. Loader
    D. Editor
    Answer: A
  37. Port-mapped I/O is another name for:
    A. Memory mapped I/O
    B. Isolated I/O
    C. DMA
    D. Cache I/O
    Answer: B
  38. Which device converts hard copy to soft copy?
    A. Printer
    B. Scanner
    C. Plotter
    D. Speaker
    Answer: B
  39. Which is used for video input?
    A. Webcam
    B. Printer
    C. Speaker
    D. Plotter
    Answer: A
  40. Interface logic helps in:
    A. Compilation
    B. Speed matching
    C. Gaming
    D. Typing
    Answer: B
  41. Data register in I/O interface stores:
    A. Address
    B. Data
    C. Program
    D. Cache
    Answer: B
  42. Status register stores:
    A. Device status
    B. Program
    C. Data
    D. Instruction
    Answer: A
  43. Control register stores:
    A. Commands
    B. Output
    C. Input
    D. Cache
    Answer: A
  44. Daisy chaining is used in:
    A. Interrupt priority
    B. Printing
    C. Storage
    D. Coding
    Answer: A
  45. Priority interrupt is needed when:
    A. Many devices request service
    B. No device works
    C. CPU fails
    D. Memory fails
    Answer: A
  46. Simplex mode means:
    A. One-way communication
    B. Two-way
    C. Both-way simultaneous
    D. Random
    Answer: A
  47. Half duplex means:
    A. One-way
    B. Two-way but not simultaneous
    C. Simultaneous both ways
    D. No transfer
    Answer: B
  48. Full duplex means:
    A. One-way
    B. Alternate-way
    C. Simultaneous both ways
    D. Slow-way
    Answer: C
  49. Which is NOT an I/O transfer technique?
    A. DMA
    B. Interrupt
    C. Polling
    D. Paging
    Answer: D
  50. I/O interface reduces:
    A. Device mismatch problem
    B. CPU speed
    C. Memory size
    D. Disk size
    Answer: A

Part B –Fill in the Blanks (with Answers)

  1. Peripheral devices are connected ______ to the computer.
    Answer: externally
  2. Keyboard is an ______ device.
    Answer: input
  3. Printer is an ______ device.
    Answer: output
  4. Scanner converts hard copy into ______ copy.
    Answer: soft
  5. MICR is mainly used in ______.
    Answer: banks
  6. OCR stands for Optical Character ______.
    Answer: Recognition
  7. USB stands for Universal ______ Bus.
    Answer: Serial
  8. I/O means Input and ______.
    Answer: Output
  9. I/O interface connects CPU with ______ devices.
    Answer: peripheral
  10. Serial transmission sends ______ bit at a time.
    Answer: one
  11. Parallel transmission sends ______ bits at a time.
    Answer: multiple
  12. Programmed I/O is also called ______.
    Answer: polling
  13. DMA stands for Direct ______ Access.
    Answer: Memory
  14. Interrupt driven I/O reduces CPU ______ time.
    Answer: idle
  15. Buffer is used for ______ storage.
    Answer: temporary
  16. Memory-mapped I/O shares address space with ______.
    Answer: memory
  17. Isolated I/O uses ______ address space.
    Answer: separate
  18. Handshaking provides ______ between device and CPU.
    Answer: synchronization
  19. Mouse is a ______ device.
    Answer: pointing
  20. Plotter is used for large ______.
    Answer: drawings
  21. Speaker produces ______ output.
    Answer: audio
  22. Monitor produces ______ output.
    Answer: visual
  23. Webcam is a ______ device.
    Answer: input
  24. Light pen works on ______ screen.
    Answer: monitor
  25. Trackball is similar to a ______.
    Answer: mouse
  26. Barcode reader reads ______ codes.
    Answer: bar
  27. Control register stores ______.
    Answer: commands
  28. Status register stores device ______.
    Answer: status
  29. Data register stores ______.
    Answer: data
  30. Daisy chaining is used for interrupt ______.
    Answer: priority
  31. Full duplex allows ______ communication.
    Answer: simultaneous
  32. Half duplex allows two-way but not ______ communication.
    Answer: simultaneous
  33. Simplex allows ______ way communication.
    Answer: one
  34. DMA transfers data without CPU ______.
    Answer: intervention
  35. I/O controller is also called ______.
    Answer: interface
  36. USB is a ______ interface.
    Answer: serial
  37. Interrupt is a ______ signal.
    Answer: hardware
  38. Polling checks device ______.
    Answer: status
  39. Interface resolves speed ______ problem.
    Answer: mismatch
  40. Hard disk is a ______ device.
    Answer: storage
  41. Touch screen is both ______ and output.
    Answer: input
  42. Printer produces ______ copy.
    Answer: hard
  43. Scanner produces ______ copy.
    Answer: soft
  44. Joystick is used in ______.
    Answer: games
  45. Port-mapped I/O is also called ______ I/O.
    Answer: isolated
  46. Memory-mapped I/O uses ______ instructions.
    Answer: memory
  47. I/O port is used to connect ______.
    Answer: devices
  48. DMA gives ______ speed data transfer.
    Answer: high
  49. Interrupt improves CPU ______.
    Answer: efficiency
  50. Peripheral devices are also called ______ devices.
    Answer: external

==================================================================

 

TOPICS:- Asynchronous Data Transfer / Modes / Priority Interrupt

PART 1 —MCQs (with Answers)

🔹 Asynchronous Data Transfer / Modes / Priority Interrupt — MCQs

  1. Asynchronous data transfer uses ______ signal for coordination.
    A) Clock
    B) Handshaking
    C) Counter
    D) Register
    Answer: B
  2. Asynchronous transfer does not require:
    A) Control signal
    B) Clock signal
    C) Acknowledge signal
    D) Request signal
    Answer: B
  3. Handshaking involves how many control signals?
    A) One
    B) Two
    C) Three
    D) Four
    Answer: B
  4. The two handshaking signals are:
    A) Start–Stop
    B) Enable–Disable
    C) Request–Acknowledge
    D) Send–Receive
    Answer: C
  5. Strobe control method uses:
    A) Two signals
    B) Clock pulses
    C) Single control signal
    D) No control signal
    Answer: C
  6. In source-initiated strobe, strobe is generated by:
    A) Receiver
    B) Source
    C) Memory
    D) Bus
    Answer: B
  7. In destination-initiated strobe, strobe is generated by:
    A) Source
    B) Receiver
    C) CPU
    D) DMA
    Answer: B
  8. Asynchronous transfer is used when devices have:
    A) Same speed
    B) Fixed timing
    C) Different speeds
    D) Same clock
    Answer: C
  9. Which is more reliable?
    A) Strobe
    B) Handshaking
    C) Clocking
    D) Polling
    Answer: B
  10. Data transfer without timing reference is called:
    A) Synchronous
    B) Asynchronous
    C) Serial
    D) Parallel
    Answer: B

🔹 Modes of Data Transfer

  1. Which is NOT a mode of data transfer?
    A) Programmed I/O
    B) Interrupt I/O
    C) DMA
    D) Cache I/O
    Answer: D
  2. Programmed I/O is also called:
    A) Interrupt driven
    B) Polling
    C) DMA
    D) Vector I/O
    Answer: B
  3. In Programmed I/O, CPU checks device status by:
    A) Interrupt
    B) Polling
    C) DMA
    D) Bus request
    Answer: B
  4. Interrupt-driven I/O reduces:
    A) Memory
    B) CPU idle time
    C) Bus width
    D) Register size
    Answer: B
  5. DMA stands for:
    A) Direct Memory Access
    B) Data Memory Allocation
    C) Direct Module Access
    D) Dynamic Memory Access
    Answer: A
  6. DMA transfers data between:
    A) CPU and ALU
    B) I/O and Memory
    C) Register and Cache
    D) CPU and Cache
    Answer: B
  7. DMA controller needs:
    A) Interrupt
    B) Bus control
    C) Stack
    D) Cache
    Answer: B
  8. Fastest data transfer mode is:
    A) Programmed I/O
    B) Interrupt I/O
    C) DMA
    D) Manual I/O
    Answer: C
  9. Programmed I/O wastes:
    A) Disk space
    B) CPU time
    C) Cache
    D) Registers
    Answer: B
  10. Interrupt I/O uses:
    A) Polling
    B) Signals
    C) Interrupt request
    D) Cache
    Answer: C

🔹 Priority Interrupt

  1. Priority interrupt decides:
    A) Memory size
    B) Instruction order
    C) Which interrupt to serve first
    D) Bus width
    Answer: C
  2. Priority encoder is used in:
    A) ALU
    B) Interrupt system
    C) Cache
    D) Register file
    Answer: B
  3. Daisy chaining is used for:
    A) Memory control
    B) Interrupt priority
    C) DMA
    D) Bus speed
    Answer: B
  4. Fixed priority means:
    A) Changing order
    B) Random order
    C) Predefined order
    D) No order
    Answer: C
  5. In daisy chain, priority is given based on:
    A) Distance
    B) Position
    C) Speed
    D) Voltage
    Answer: B
  6. Vectored interrupt provides:
    A) Data value
    B) Address of ISR
    C) Clock
    D) Bus signal
    Answer: B
  7. Non-vectored interrupt provides:
    A) ISR address internally
    B) ISR address externally
    C) No ISR
    D) DMA
    Answer: B
  8. Interrupt request line is called:
    A) INTR
    B) CLK
    C) MAR
    D) PC
    Answer: A
  9. Interrupt acknowledge signal is:
    A) INTA
    B) ACK
    C) BUSY
    D) READY
    Answer: A
  10. Priority resolver hardware is used when:
    A) Multiple interrupts occur
    B) One device exists
    C) No interrupt
    D) DMA active
    Answer: A

🔹 Mixed Concept MCQs

  1. Handshaking prevents:
    A) Overflow
    B) Data loss
    C) Cache miss
    D) Page fault
    Answer: B
  2. DMA bypasses:
    A) Memory
    B) CPU
    C) Register
    D) Cache
    Answer: B
  3. Interrupt improves:
    A) CPU utilization
    B) Memory size
    C) Bus width
    D) Instruction length
    Answer: A
  4. Polling checks device using:
    A) Loop
    B) Stack
    C) Interrupt
    D) DMA
    Answer: A
  5. Strobe method risk is:
    A) Data mismatch
    B) Timing problem
    C) Overflow
    D) Bus error
    Answer: B
  6. DMA needs bus grant from:
    A) I/O device
    B) CPU
    C) Register
    D) Cache
    Answer: B
  7. Interrupt service routine is stored in:
    A) Disk
    B) Memory
    C) Cache
    D) Register
    Answer: B
  8. ISR stands for:
    A) Interrupt Service Routine
    B) Internal System Register
    C) Input Service Routine
    D) Interrupt Stack Register
    Answer: A
  9. Priority encoder output is:
    A) Binary code
    B) Decimal code
    C) Gray code
    D) ASCII
    Answer: A
  10. Daisy chain disadvantage:
    A) Slow response
    B) Expensive
    C) Large memory
    D) Complex code
    Answer: A
  11. Asynchronous transfer is mostly used in:
    A) I/O devices
    B) Cache
    C) ALU
    D) Register
    Answer: A
  12. Handshaking is also called:
    A) Two-line control
    B) Clocking
    C) Polling
    D) DMA
    Answer: A
  13. Interrupt vector table stores:
    A) Data
    B) ISR addresses
    C) Registers
    D) Flags
    Answer: B
  14. Multiple interrupts are handled by:
    A) Encoder
    B) Decoder
    C) Multiplexer
    D) Counter
    Answer: A
  15. Programmed I/O is suitable for:
    A) Slow devices
    B) Fast transfer
    C) DMA
    D) Cache
    Answer: A
  16. DMA controller contains:
    A) Address register
    B) Counter
    C) Control logic
    D) All of these
    Answer: D
  17. Interrupt driven I/O uses:
    A) Flags
    B) Signals
    C) ISR
    D) All
    Answer: D
  18. Ready line is used in:
    A) Asynchronous transfer
    B) Cache
    C) ALU
    D) Register
    Answer: A
  19. Bus request in DMA is:
    A) BR
    B) BG
    C) INT
    D) ACK
    Answer: A
  20. Bus grant signal is:
    A) BG
    B) BR
    C) ACK
    D) INTR
    Answer: A

 

PART 2 —Fill in the Blanks (with Answers)

  1. Asynchronous transfer does not use a ______ signal.
    Answer: clock
  2. Handshaking uses ______ and acknowledge signals.
    Answer: request
  3. Strobe method uses ______ control signal.
    Answer: single
  4. Data transfer between unequal speed devices is called ______ transfer.
    Answer: asynchronous
  5. Programmed I/O is also called ______.
    Answer: polling
  6. DMA means ______ Memory Access.
    Answer: Direct
  7. Fastest I/O transfer mode is ______.
    Answer: DMA
  8. Interrupt driven I/O reduces ______ waiting time.
    Answer: CPU
  9. ISR stands for ______.
    Answer: Interrupt Service Routine
  10. Priority interrupt decides ______ order.
    Answer: service
  11. Daisy chaining provides ______ priority.
    Answer: fixed
  12. Priority encoder converts to ______ code.
    Answer: binary
  13. Interrupt request line is ______.
    Answer: INTR
  14. Interrupt acknowledge is ______.
    Answer: INTA
  15. DMA bypasses the ______.
    Answer: CPU
  16. Handshaking is more ______ than strobe.
    Answer: reliable
  17. Polling repeatedly checks device ______.
    Answer: status
  18. DMA needs ______ control.
    Answer: bus
  19. Vector interrupt supplies ______ of ISR.
    Answer: address
  20. Non-vectored interrupt does not supply ISR ______.
    Answer: address
  21. Multiple interrupts need ______ resolver.
    Answer: priority
  22. In daisy chain, nearest device has ______ priority.
    Answer: highest
  23. Interrupt improves CPU ______.
    Answer: utilization
  24. Strobe has ______ problem risk.
    Answer: timing
  25. DMA controller has address and ______ registers.
    Answer: count
  26. Handshaking uses ______ signals.
    Answer: two
  27. Programmed I/O wastes ______ cycles.
    Answer: CPU
  28. Interrupt is a ______ signal.
    Answer: hardware
  29. Asynchronous transfer uses ______ control.
    Answer: independent
  30. Bus request signal is ______.
    Answer: BR
  31. Bus grant signal is ______.
    Answer: BG
  32. Interrupt vector table is stored in ______.
    Answer: memory
  33. Priority interrupts avoid ______ conflict.
    Answer: service
  34. DMA transfer is ______ speed.
    Answer: high
  35. Polling uses a ______ loop.
    Answer: checking
  36. Handshaking prevents data ______.
    Answer: loss
  37. Interrupt driven I/O uses ______ routine.
    Answer: service
  38. Priority hardware uses ______ encoder.
    Answer: priority
  39. Asynchronous transfer is common in ______ devices.
    Answer: I/O
  40. Source initiated strobe is generated by ______.
    Answer: sender
  41. Destination initiated strobe is generated by ______.
    Answer: receiver
  42. Interrupt is generated by ______ device.
    Answer: I/O
  43. DMA needs bus ______.
    Answer: grant
  44. Programmed I/O is ______ method.
    Answer: simple
  45. Handshaking confirms data ______.
    Answer: reception
  46. Daisy chain is ______ priority scheme.
    Answer: serial
  47. Interrupt request is also called ______.
    Answer: IRQ
  48. DMA improves transfer ______.
    Answer: speed
  49. Interrupt saves CPU from ______ waiting.
    Answer: busy
  50. Asynchronous transfer uses ______ coordination.
    Answer: signal

================================================================

 

TOPICS :- Numerical on Data Transfer Modes


Problem 1 — Programmed I/O Transfer Time

A device transfers 1 word = 4 bytes.
CPU polling time per word = 8 µs.
Total words to transfer = 2000.

Find total transfer time.

Solution:

Time per word = 8 µs
Words = 2000

Total time = 2000 × 8 µs
= 16000 µs = 16 ms

Answer: 16 ms


Problem 2 — DMA Transfer Time

DMA transfer rate = 20 MB/s
Data size = 5 MB

Find transfer time.

Solution:

Time = Data / Rate
= 5 / 20 sec
= 0.25 sec

Answer: 0.25 sec


Problem 3 — Interrupt I/O Overhead

Device generates interrupt every 500 µs.
ISR execution time = 50 µs.
Find CPU overhead percentage.

 Solution:

Overhead = ISR time / Interval × 100

= 50 / 500 × 100
= 10%

Answer: 10% CPU overhead


Problem 4 — Polling vs Interrupt Comparison

Polling check takes 10 µs each time.
Device becomes ready after 2 ms.

How much CPU time wasted in polling?

Solution:

2 ms = 2000 µs

Checks = 2000 / 10 = 200 polls
CPU time wasted = 200 × 10 µs
= 2000 µs = 2 ms

Answer: 2 ms wasted


Problem 5 — DMA Block Transfer

DMA transfers 1 block = 512 bytes
Transfer speed = 2 MB/s

Find time per block.

Solution:

2 MB/s = 2,000,000 B/s

Time = 512 / 2,000,000
= 0.000256 sec
= 0.256 ms

Answer: 0.256 ms


PART 2 — Numerical on Asynchronous Transfer


Problem 6 — Handshaking Delay

Request signal delay = 3 µs
Acknowledge delay = 2 µs
Data stable time = 5 µs

Find total transfer time per word.

Solution:

Total = 3 + 2 + 5
= 10 µs

Answer: 10 µs


Problem 7 — Strobe Method Error Risk

Sender sends data every 6 µs
Receiver reads every 8 µs

How many transfers lost in 1 ms?

Solution:

Sender sends = 1000 / 6 ≈ 167 words
Receiver reads = 1000 / 8 = 125 words

Lost = 167 − 125
= 42 words

Answer: 42 words lost


Problem 8 — Asynchronous Throughput

Each transfer takes 12 µs.
Find transfers per second.

Solution:

Transfers/sec = 1,000,000 / 12
83,333 transfers/sec

Answer: ≈ 83,333


PART 3 — Numerical on DMA


Problem 9 — DMA Bus Cycle Stealing

CPU cycle = 200 ns
DMA steals 1 cycle every 5 cycles.

Find CPU slowdown %.

Solution:

DMA steals = 1 / 5 = 20%

Answer: 20% slowdown


Problem 10 — DMA Burst Mode

DMA transfers 1000 words.
Each transfer = 150 ns.

Find burst time.

Solution:

Time = 1000 × 150 ns
= 150,000 ns
= 150 µs

Answer: 150 µs


PART 4 — Numerical on Interrupt System


Problem 11 — Interrupt Priority Encoding

There are 8 interrupt lines.
Find number of encoder output bits required.

Solution:

Bits = log₂(8)
= 3 bits

Answer: 3 bits


Problem 12 — Interrupt Rate

Interrupt occurs every 250 µs.
Find interrupts per second.

Solution:

1 sec = 1,000,000 µs

Interrupts = 1,000,000 / 250
= 4000

Answer: 4000 interrupts/sec


Problem 13 — ISR CPU Usage

ISR time = 30 µs
Interrupt frequency = 5000/sec

Find CPU usage.

Solution:

Total ISR time/sec = 5000 × 30 µs
= 150,000 µs
= 0.15 sec

CPU usage = 15%

Answer: 15%


Problem 14 — Daisy Chain Delay

Each device adds 200 ns delay.
5 devices in chain.

Find total priority resolution delay.

Solution:

Delay = 5 × 200 ns
= 1000 ns = 1 µs

Answer: 1 µs


PART 5 — Mixed Mode Numerical


Problem 15 — Mode Comparison Time

Transfer 10 KB data.

Programmed I/O speed = 100 KB/s
Interrupt I/O speed = 250 KB/s
DMA speed = 2 MB/s

Find times.

Solution:

Programmed I/O:
10 / 100 = 0.1 s

Interrupt I/O:
10 / 250 = 0.04 s

DMA:
10 KB = 0.01 MB
0.01 / 2 = 0.005 s

Answer:
Programmed = 0.1 s
Interrupt = 0.04 s
DMA = 0.005 s


Problem 16 — Handshaking Throughput

Handshake cycle = 15 µs
Find max words/sec.

Solution:

1,000,000 / 15
66,667 words/sec

Answer: ≈ 66,667


Problem 17 — Interrupt vs Polling CPU Load

Polling takes 12 µs/check
Device ready every 600 µs
ISR time = 20 µs

Compare CPU load.

Solution:

Polling checks = 600/12 = 50 checks
CPU load polling = 600 µs

Interrupt load = 20 µs

Answer: Interrupt saves 580 µs per cycle


Problem 18 — DMA Transfer Cycles

DMA transfers 2048 bytes
Bus width = 16 bits

Find number of transfers.

Solution:

16 bits = 2 bytes

Transfers = 2048 / 2
= 1024

Answer: 1024 transfers


Problem 19 — Interrupt Vector Table Size

System supports 64 interrupts.
Each vector entry = 4 bytes.

Find table size.

Solution:

Size = 64 × 4
= 256 bytes

Answer: 256 bytes


Problem 20 — Bus Utilization

DMA uses bus for 300 µs per ms.

Find bus utilization %.

Solution:

300 / 1000 × 100
= 30%

Answer: 30%


===========================================================  

 

TOPICS:- Direct Memory Access (DMA) — MCQs

Part 1 —MCQs (Direct Memory Access & I/O Processor)


  1. DMA stands for:
    A) Direct Memory Allocation
    B) Direct Memory Access
    C) Data Memory Access
    D) Direct Machine Access
    Answer: B
  2. DMA allows data transfer between:
    A) CPU and Register
    B) I/O device and Memory
    C) Cache and Register
    D) ALU and Memory
    Answer: B
  3. DMA transfer occurs without continuous involvement of:
    A) RAM
    B) CPU
    C) Bus
    D) Register
    Answer: B
  4. The DMA controller takes control of the:
    A) Address bus
    B) Data bus
    C) Control bus
    D) System bus
    Answer: D
  5. DMA improves system:
    A) Cost
    B) Speed
    C) Size
    D) Voltage
    Answer: B
  6. In DMA, CPU is interrupted when:
    A) Transfer starts
    B) Transfer ends
    C) Memory full
    D) Bus idle
    Answer: B
  7. DMA is mainly used for:
    A) Slow transfers
    B) Bulk data transfer
    C) Instruction fetch
    D) Cache mapping
    Answer: B
  8. Which signal is used to request bus control?
    A) HOLD
    B) READY
    C) RESET
    D) INT
    Answer: A
  9. CPU acknowledges DMA request using:
    A) READY
    B) HOLD ACK
    C) BUSY
    D) INT
    Answer: B
  10. DMA controller contains:
    A) ALU
    B) Program Counter
    C) Address Register
    D) Stack Pointer
    Answer: C

  1. DMA transfer mode where CPU is halted:
    A) Burst mode
    B) Cycle stealing
    C) Transparent
    D) Polled
    Answer: A
  2. Cycle stealing DMA steals:
    A) Instructions
    B) Clock cycles
    C) Registers
    D) Interrupts
    Answer: B
  3. Transparent DMA works when:
    A) CPU idle
    B) CPU busy
    C) Memory full
    D) Interrupt occurs
    Answer: A
  4. DMA reduces CPU:
    A) Load
    B) Clock speed
    C) Registers
    D) Power
    Answer: A
  5. DMA controller is also called:
    A) Bus master
    B) Bus slave
    C) Decoder
    D) Encoder
    Answer: A
  6. DMA is commonly used in:
    A) Keyboard
    B) Disk transfer
    C) Mouse
    D) Cache
    Answer: B
  7. DMA transfer is initiated by:
    A) CPU
    B) I/O device
    C) Memory
    D) Cache
    Answer: B
  8. DMA controller generates:
    A) Memory addresses
    B) Opcodes
    C) Instructions
    D) Flags
    Answer: A
  9. DMA needs:
    A) Cache
    B) Controller hardware
    C) Compiler
    D) Interpreter
    Answer: B
  10. DMA transfer avoids repeated:
    A) Interrupts
    B) Registers
    C) Flags
    D) Cache
    Answer: A

I/O Processor (IOP) — MCQs

  1. IOP stands for:
    A) Input Output Processor
    B) Internal Output Processor
    C) Instruction Output Processor
    D) Input Operation Program
    Answer: A
  2. IOP is a:
    A) Specialized processor
    B) Cache memory
    C) Register
    D) ALU
    Answer: A
  3. IOP executes:
    A) User programs
    B) I/O programs
    C) OS kernel
    D) Cache logic
    Answer: B
  4. IOP reduces load on:
    A) Memory
    B) CPU
    C) Bus
    D) Cache
    Answer: B
  5. IOP has its own:
    A) Registers
    B) Bus
    C) Memory
    D) All of these
    Answer: D
  6. IOP works similar to:
    A) Microprocessor
    B) Decoder
    C) Encoder
    D) Multiplexer
    Answer: A
  7. IOP handles:
    A) Arithmetic
    B) I/O tasks
    C) Cache mapping
    D) Branching
    Answer: B
  8. IOP communicates with CPU using:
    A) Interrupt
    B) Compiler
    C) Assembler
    D) Loader
    Answer: A
  9. IOP improves:
    A) Throughput
    B) Voltage
    C) Heat
    D) Power loss
    Answer: A
  10. IOP executes instructions stored in:
    A) Main memory
    B) Cache
    C) Register
    D) Stack
    Answer: A

  1. IOP can control:
    A) Multiple I/O devices
    B) Only one device
    C) Only CPU
    D) Only memory
    Answer: A
  2. IOP works concurrently with:
    A) CPU
    B) Cache
    C) Register
    D) ALU
    Answer: A
  3. IOP is used in:
    A) High performance systems
    B) Only laptops
    C) Only mobiles
    D) Calculators
    Answer: A
  4. IOP has its own:
    A) Control unit
    B) ALU
    C) Registers
    D) All
    Answer: D
  5. IOP fetches instructions from:
    A) I/O memory area
    B) Register
    C) Cache only
    D) ROM only
    Answer: A
  6. IOP operation is:
    A) Sequential
    B) Parallel
    C) Random
    D) Static
    Answer: B
  7. IOP reduces number of:
    A) CPU interrupts
    B) Registers
    C) Memory blocks
    D) Flags
    Answer: A
  8. IOP is best suited for:
    A) Heavy I/O load
    B) Math operations
    C) Graphics only
    D) Cache design
    Answer: A
  9. IOP executes:
    A) I/O instruction set
    B) Machine code only
    C) Java code
    D) Python code
    Answer: A
  10. IOP is also known as:
    A) Channel processor
    B) Cache unit
    C) ALU
    D) Decoder
    Answer: A

  1. IOP increases:
    A) CPU idle time for other work
    B) Bus errors
    C) Cache misses
    D) Power loss
    Answer: A
  2. DMA + IOP both aim to:
    A) Increase I/O efficiency
    B) Reduce RAM
    C) Reduce CPU clock
    D) Increase heat
    Answer: A
  3. IOP can directly access:
    A) Main memory
    B) Cache only
    C) Register only
    D) Stack only
    Answer: A
  4. IOP sends status via:
    A) Interrupt
    B) Cache
    C) Flag register
    D) Bus only
    Answer: A
  5. IOP program is called:
    A) Channel program
    B) User program
    C) OS program
    D) BIOS program
    Answer: A
  6. IOP belongs to:
    A) Input Output organization
    B) Memory organization
    C) CPU design
    D) Compiler design
    Answer: A
  7. DMA is hardware while IOP is:
    A) Programmable processor
    B) Cache
    C) Register
    D) Decoder
    Answer: A
  8. IOP provides:
    A) Intelligent I/O control
    B) Cache mapping
    C) Branch prediction
    D) Virtual memory
    Answer: A
  9. IOP reduces:
    A) CPU bottleneck
    B) Memory size
    C) Bus width
    D) Register count
    Answer: A
  10. IOP and DMA are used for:
    A) Efficient I/O
    B) Arithmetic speed
    C) Cache mapping
    D) Instruction decoding
    Answer: A

Part 2 —Fill-in-the-Blanks (with Answers)


  1. DMA stands for Direct Memory Access
  2. DMA transfers data between I/O device and memory
  3. DMA reduces load on CPU
  4. DMA controller takes control of system bus
  5. CPU sends HOLD ACK after receiving HOLD
  6. DMA is used for bulk data transfer
  7. DMA works without continuous CPU control
  8. Burst mode stops the CPU
  9. Cycle stealing steals clock cycles
  10. Transparent DMA works when CPU is idle
  11. DMA controller generates memory addresses
  12. DMA reduces number of interrupts
  13. DMA needs special controller hardware
  14. Disk transfer commonly uses DMA
  15. DMA controller acts as bus master
  16. IOP stands for Input Output Processor
  17. IOP is a specialized processor
  18. IOP executes I/O programs
  19. IOP reduces load on CPU
  20. IOP improves system throughput
  21. IOP has its own registers
  22. IOP communicates using interrupts
  23. IOP can control multiple devices
  24. IOP works parallel with CPU
  25. IOP is used in high performance systems
  26. IOP fetches instructions from main memory
  27. IOP has its own control unit
  28. IOP executes channel programs
  29. IOP is also called channel processor
  30. IOP provides intelligent I/O control
  31. DMA and IOP increase I/O efficiency
  32. IOP directly accesses memory
  33. IOP reduces CPU interrupts
  34. IOP handles heavy I/O load
  35. DMA avoids repeated interrupts
  36. DMA controller contains address register
  37. DMA request comes from I/O device
  38. DMA acknowledgment comes from CPU
  39. IOP executes separate instruction set
  40. IOP increases CPU availability
  41. DMA is a hardware technique
  42. IOP is a programmable unit
  43. DMA improves transfer speed
  44. IOP reduces CPU bottleneck
  45. IOP manages I/O operations
  46. Transparent DMA uses idle bus cycles
  47. Burst DMA gives full control to DMA controller
  48. Cycle stealing mode shares bus
  49. IOP and DMA belong to I/O organization
  50. Both DMA and IOP improve performance

============================================================

 

TOPICS:- DMA Numerical Questions

MCQs


Q1

A DMA controller transfers 4096 bytes at a rate of 2 MB/s. How much time is required?

Answer:
Rate = 2 MB/s = 2 × 10⁶ B/s
Time = Data / Rate = 4096 / (2×10⁶)
= 0.002048 s = 2.048 ms


Q2

DMA transfers 8 KB block using burst mode at 4 MB/s. Find transfer time.

Answer:
8 KB = 8192 bytes
Time = 8192 / (4×10⁶) = 0.002048 s = 2.048 ms


Q3

A DMA steals one bus cycle every 5 CPU cycles. CPU cycle = 100 ns. Find % CPU slowdown.

Answer:
1 out of 5 cycles stolen
Slowdown = 1/5 = 20%


Q4

DMA transfers 2048 words, word size = 4 bytes, rate = 1 MB/s. Time?

Answer:
Data = 2048 × 4 = 8192 bytes
Time = 8192 / 10⁶ = 8.192 ms


Q5

DMA address register is 16-bit. Max memory it can address?

Answer:
2¹⁶ = 65,536 bytes = 64 KB


Q6

DMA counter register is 12-bit. Max block size?

Answer:
2¹² = 4096 transfers


Q7

DMA transfer rate = 10 MB/s. Data block = 50 KB. Time?

Answer:
50 KB = 51200 B
Time = 51200 / (10×10⁶)
= 5.12 ms


Q8

DMA takes 200 ns per word. Transfer 5000 words. Time?

Answer:
Time = 5000 × 200 ns
= 1,000,000 ns = 1 ms


Q9

CPU bus cycle = 80 ns. DMA steals every 4th cycle. Effective CPU cycle available?

Answer:
Available = 3/4
Effective = 0.75 × 80 = 60 ns useful


Q10

DMA transfers 1 MB in 0.25 sec. Find rate.

Answer:
Rate = 1 MB / 0.25 s
= 4 MB/s


Q11

DMA block transfer = 32 KB at 8 MB/s + setup overhead 0.5 ms. Total time?

Answer:
32 KB = 32768 B
Transfer time = 32768 / (8×10⁶) = 4.096 ms
Total = 4.096 + 0.5 = 4.596 ms


Q12

DMA steals 10% cycles. CPU execution time without DMA = 100 ms. New time?

Answer:
New time = 100 / 0.9
= 111.1 ms


Q13

DMA moves 10,000 words, 2 bytes each, at 5 MB/s. Time?

Answer:
Data = 20,000 B
Time = 20000 / (5×10⁶)
= 4 ms


Q14

Bus width = 32 bits. DMA clock = 25 MHz. Max transfer rate?

Answer:
32 bits = 4 bytes
Rate = 4 × 25M = 100 MB/s


Q15

DMA register = 14-bit address. Addressable memory?

Answer:
2¹⁴ = 16 KB


Q16

DMA burst = 1000 bytes, bus rate = 50 MB/s. Time?

Answer:
1000 / (50×10⁶) = 0.02 ms


Q17

DMA overhead per block = 200 µs. 20 blocks transferred. Total overhead?

Answer:
= 200 × 20 = 4000 µs = 4 ms


Q18

DMA transfer = 256 KB at 16 MB/s. Time?

Answer:
256 KB = 262144 B
Time = 262144 / (16×10⁶)
= 16.38 ms


Q19

DMA cycle stealing every 10 cycles. CPU cycle = 50 ns. Loss per 1000 cycles?

Answer:
Stolen = 100 cycles
Time lost = 100 × 50 ns = 5000 ns = 5 µs


Q20

DMA word = 8 bytes. Transfer 4096 words. Total bytes?

Answer:
4096 × 8 = 32768 bytes


Q21

DMA speed = 20 MB/s. Needed to transfer 2 MB. Time?

Answer:
2 / 20 = 0.1 sec


Q22

DMA counter = 10-bit. Max count?

Answer:
2¹⁰ = 1024


Q23

DMA takes 120 ns/transfer. 10,000 transfers. Time?

Answer:
= 1.2 ms


Q24

DMA burst block = 64 KB at 32 MB/s. Time?

Answer:
= 2 ms


Q25

DMA steals 5% CPU cycles. CPU job = 200 ms. New time?

Answer:
200 / 0.95 = 210.5 ms


Part B — I/O Processor Numerical Questions


Q26

IOP processes 5000 I/O ops/sec. Each op = 2 ms CPU time saved. Total CPU time saved/sec?

Answer:
5000 × 2 ms = 10,000 ms = 10 sec


Q27

Without IOP CPU handles 3000 I/O ops taking 0.5 ms each. With IOP only 10% CPU needed. New CPU time?

Answer:
Old = 3000 × 0.5 = 1500 ms
New = 10% = 150 ms


Q28

IOP transfer rate = 40 MB/s. Disk block = 80 KB. Time?

Answer:
= 2 ms


Q29

IOP executes 200K instructions/sec. Program = 5000 instructions. Time?

Answer:
5000 / 200000 = 0.025 sec


Q30

IOP reduces CPU I/O wait from 30% to 5%. CPU job = 2 sec. Time saved?

Answer:
Old wait = 0.6 s
New wait = 0.1 s
Saved = 0.5 sec


Q31

IOP channel bandwidth = 100 MB/s. Transfer 25 MB. Time?

Answer:
= 0.25 sec


Q32

IOP handles 8 devices each sending 2 MB/s. Total bandwidth needed?

Answer:
= 16 MB/s


Q33

CPU interrupt handling time = 50 µs. IOP reduces interrupts from 10,000 to 500. Time saved?

Answer:
Old = 0.5 s
New = 0.025 s
Saved = 0.475 s


Q34

IOP program length = 2000 instructions. Speed = 1 MIPS. Time?

Answer:
= 2 ms


Q35

IOP + DMA combined rate = 60 MB/s. Data = 120 MB. Time?

Answer:
= 2 sec


Q36

Without IOP throughput = 200 ops/sec. With IOP = 800 ops/sec. Improvement factor?

Answer:
800/200 =


Q37

IOP reduces CPU I/O cycles by 70%. CPU used 10M cycles. New cycles?

Answer:
= 3M cycles


Q38

IOP memory buffer = 64 KB. Each record = 512 B. Records stored?

Answer:
= 128


Q39

IOP executes command in 25 µs. 400 commands. Time?

Answer:
= 10 ms


Q40

IOP transfer = 10 GB at 200 MB/s. Time?

Answer:
= 50 sec

===============================================================

 

TOPICS :- Computer Organization – Memory Organization: Types & Capacity of Memory.

 

MCQs (With Answers)

1. Which memory is fastest?
A) RAM B) ROM C) Cache D) Hard Disk
Answer: C

2. Which memory is volatile?
A) ROM B) RAM C) HDD D) DVD
Answer: B

3. Cache memory is placed between:
A) CPU & RAM
B) RAM & HDD
C) CPU & HDD
D) ROM & RAM
Answer: A

4. Which is non-volatile memory?
A) SRAM B) DRAM C) ROM D) Cache
Answer: C

5. Primary memory is also called:
A) Secondary memory
B) Main memory
C) Backup memory
D) Virtual memory
Answer: B

6. Secondary memory is:
A) Faster than RAM
B) Non-volatile
C) Inside CPU
D) Volatile
Answer: B

7. SRAM stands for:
A) Static RAM
B) Serial RAM
C) Secondary RAM
D) Simple RAM
Answer: A

8. DRAM requires:
A) No refresh
B) Constant refresh
C) Formatting
D) Cooling
Answer: B

9. Which is cheaper?
A) SRAM B) Cache C) DRAM D) Register
Answer: C

10. Registers are located in:
A) RAM
B) CPU
C) ROM
D) Disk
Answer: B

11. Which memory has highest capacity?
A) Register B) Cache C) RAM D) Hard Disk
Answer: D

12. Memory hierarchy is arranged by:
A) Speed & Cost
B) Color
C) Shape
D) Brand
Answer: A

13. Virtual memory uses:
A) Cache
B) Hard disk
C) Register
D) ROM
Answer: B

14. EEPROM stands for:
A) Electrically Erasable PROM
B) Easily Erased PROM
C) External PROM
D) Extra PROM
Answer: A

15. PROM can be programmed:
A) Many times
B) Once
C) Never
D) Twice
Answer: B

16. Which is read-only memory?
A) RAM B) ROM C) Cache D) Register
Answer: B

17. Cache improves:
A) Cost
B) Speed
C) Size
D) Power use
Answer: B

18. Which is smallest in size?
A) Cache B) Register C) RAM D) Disk
Answer: B

19. Memory access time is lowest for:
A) Disk B) RAM C) Cache D) Register
Answer: D

20. Secondary storage example:
A) RAM B) ROM C) SSD D) Cache
Answer: C

21. Flash memory is a type of:
A) ROM
B) RAM
C) Cache
D) Register
Answer: A

22. Which is volatile?
A) Flash B) HDD C) DRAM D) DVD
Answer: C

23. Memory hierarchy top level:
A) Disk B) Cache C) Register D) RAM
Answer: C

24. Memory hierarchy bottom level:
A) Register B) Cache C) Disk D) RAM
Answer: C

25. Which is fastest RAM type?
A) DRAM B) SRAM C) SDRAM D) DDR
Answer: B

26. Cache is built using:
A) DRAM B) SRAM C) ROM D) Flash
Answer: B

27. Main memory is directly accessed by:
A) Printer B) CPU C) User D) Mouse
Answer: B

28. Which memory stores BIOS?
A) RAM B) ROM C) Cache D) Register
Answer: B

29. DDR stands for:
A) Double Data Rate
B) Dual Data RAM
C) Double Dynamic RAM
D) Disk Data Rate
Answer: A

30. Memory unit KB equals:
A) 1000 bytes
B) 1024 bytes
C) 512 bytes
D) 2048 bytes
Answer: B

31. 1 MB equals:
A) 1024 KB
B) 1000 KB
C) 512 KB
D) 2048 KB
Answer: A

32. Hard disk is:
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Cache
D) Register
Answer: B

33. Access time is highest in:
A) Register
B) Cache
C) RAM
D) Disk
Answer: D

34. Which memory is closest to CPU?
A) Disk B) RAM C) Cache D) DVD
Answer: C

35. Which stores temporary data?
A) ROM B) RAM C) DVD D) Flash
Answer: B

36. Memory hierarchy reduces:
A) Cost & Access time
B) Power only
C) Size only
D) Heat
Answer: A

37. Magnetic storage example:
A) HDD
B) SSD
C) RAM
D) Cache
Answer: A

38. Optical storage example:
A) CD
B) RAM
C) Cache
D) Register
Answer: A

39. Which memory is programmable once?
A) PROM
B) EEPROM
C) RAM
D) Cache
Answer: A

40. Secondary memory is also called:
A) Auxiliary memory
B) Main memory
C) Cache
D) Register
Answer: A

41. Memory capacity is measured in:
A) Bits & Bytes
B) Volts
C) Hertz
D) Watts
Answer: A

42. Which is not primary memory?
A) RAM
B) ROM
C) Cache
D) HDD
Answer: D

43. Cache hit means:
A) Data found in cache
B) Cache error
C) Cache full
D) Cache empty
Answer: A

44. Cache miss means:
A) Data not in cache
B) Cache broken
C) Cache full
D) Cache locked
Answer: A

45. L1 cache is:
A) Slowest
B) Closest to CPU
C) Biggest
D) External
Answer: B

46. L3 cache is:
A) Larger but slower
B) Fastest
C) Smallest
D) ROM
Answer: A

47. Virtual memory gives illusion of:
A) Larger RAM
B) Smaller RAM
C) Faster CPU
D) Larger disk
Answer: A

48. Which is fastest storage device?
A) SSD
B) HDD
C) Register
D) DVD
Answer: C

49. DRAM is used as:
A) Cache
B) Main memory
C) Register
D) ROM
Answer: B

50. Memory hierarchy is based on:
A) Speed, Cost, Capacity
B) Color
C) Weight
D) Shape
Answer: A


Part 2 —Fill in the Blanks (Question–Answer Format)

1. Fastest memory is ______ → Register
2. Cache is between CPU and ______ → RAM
3. RAM is ______ memory → Volatile
4. ROM is ______ memory → Non-volatile
5. DRAM needs periodic ______ → Refresh
6. SRAM means ______ → Static Random Access Memory
7. Main memory is also called ______ → Primary memory
8. Hard disk is ______ memory → Secondary
9. Memory unit KB = ______ bytes → 1024
10. PROM can be programmed only ______ → Once
11. EEPROM is electrically ______ → Erasable
12. Cache uses ______ technology → SRAM
13. Virtual memory uses ______ storage → Disk
14. Smallest memory unit is ______ → Bit
15. 8 bits = 1 ______ → Byte
16. L1 cache is ______ to CPU → Closest
17. Memory hierarchy reduces access ______ → Time
18. Optical storage example ______ → CD/DVD
19. Magnetic storage example ______ → Hard disk
20. BIOS is stored in ______ → ROM
21. DDR stands for ______ → Double Data Rate
22. DRAM is ______ than SRAM → Slower
23. SRAM is ______ than DRAM → Faster
24. Secondary memory is also called ______ → Auxiliary memory
25. Cache miss means data not found in ______ → Cache
26. Cache hit means data found in ______ → Cache
27. Flash memory is type of ______ → ROM
28. Register is inside ______ → CPU
29. Memory capacity measured in ______ → Bytes
30. Top of hierarchy is ______ → Register
31. Bottom of hierarchy is ______ → Secondary storage
32. RAM stores ______ data → Temporary
33. ROM stores ______ instructions → Permanent
34. L3 cache is ______ than L1 → Slower
35. SSD is ______ storage → Secondary
36. Memory directly accessed by CPU is ______ → Main memory
37. PROM stands for ______ → Programmable Read Only Memory
38. EPROM is erased by ______ → UV light
39. Memory near CPU improves ______ → Performance
40. Larger memory usually has ______ speed → Lower
41. Registers have ______ capacity → Very small
42. Disk has ______ capacity → Very large
43. Cache is ______ than RAM → Faster
44. RAM is ______ than disk → Faster
45. Memory hierarchy balances cost and ______ → Speed
46. Virtual memory increases logical ______ → Memory
47. Secondary storage is ______ volatile → Non
48. Primary memory is mostly ______ volatile → Volatile
49. DRAM stands for ______ → Dynamic Random Access Memory
50. Memory organization deals with storage ______ → Structure

==============================================================

 

Topics: Associative Memory, Buffer, Cache Memory, Virtual Memory

Format: MCQs


Part A —MCQs (Multiple Choice Questions)

Associative Memory

1. Associative memory is also known as:
A. Virtual memory
B. Content Addressable Memory
C. Auxiliary memory
D. Flash memory
Answer: B

2. Associative memory searches data by using:
A. Address
B. Index
C. Content
D. Pointer
Answer: C

3. CAM stands for:
A. Computer Access Memory
B. Content Addressable Memory
C. Cache Access Module
D. Central Address Memory
Answer: B

4. Associative memory is mainly used in:
A. Registers
B. Cache memory
C. Hard disk
D. ROM
Answer: B

5. Associative memory provides:
A. Sequential search
B. Parallel search
C. Manual search
D. Binary search
Answer: B

6. Access time of associative memory is:
A. Very high
B. Very low (fast)
C. Equal to RAM
D. Equal to disk
Answer: B

7. Associative memory compares input with:
A. All stored words
B. One word only
C. First word only
D. Last word only
Answer: A

8. Major disadvantage of associative memory is:
A. Slow speed
B. High cost
C. Small size only
D. Low reliability
Answer: B

9. Associative memory hardware is:
A. Simple
B. Complex
C. Mechanical
D. Magnetic
Answer: B

10. Associative memory is useful in:
A. Address translation
B. Keyboard input
C. Printer output
D. Sound processing
Answer: A


Buffer Memory

11. A buffer is used to:
A. Increase CPU speed
B. Temporarily store data
C. Permanently store data
D. Encrypt data
Answer: B

12. Buffer memory helps in:
A. Speed matching
B. Virus removal
C. Formatting
D. Compression
Answer: A

13. Buffer is mainly placed between:
A. Two devices with different speeds
B. Two CPUs
C. Two monitors
D. Two printers
Answer: A

14. Keyboard buffer stores:
A. Screen output
B. Keystrokes temporarily
C. BIOS data
D. Cache tags
Answer: B

15. Buffer reduces:
A. Power
B. Speed difference impact
C. Storage size
D. Instruction count
Answer: B

16. Buffer memory is:
A. Permanent
B. Temporary
C. Secondary
D. Optical
Answer: B

17. Printer spooler is an example of:
A. Buffering
B. Caching
C. Paging
D. Mapping
Answer: A

18. Buffer overflow occurs when:
A. Buffer is empty
B. Data exceeds buffer size
C. CPU is idle
D. Cache is full
Answer: B

19. Double buffering uses:
A. Two buffers
B. One buffer
C. Three buffers
D. No buffer
Answer: A

20. Buffer improves:
A. Data transfer efficiency
B. Disk capacity
C. CPU architecture
D. Instruction set
Answer: A


Cache Memory

21. Cache memory is located between:
A. CPU and main memory
B. RAM and disk
C. Disk and printer
D. Monitor and CPU
Answer: A

22. Cache memory is:
A. Slower than RAM
B. Faster than RAM
C. Equal to disk
D. Optical
Answer: B

23. Cache is built using:
A. DRAM
B. SRAM
C. Flash
D. ROM
Answer: B

24. Cache stores:
A. All data
B. Frequently used data
C. Old data only
D. Backup data
Answer: B

25. Cache improves:
A. Access time
B. File size
C. Screen resolution
D. Power usage
Answer: A

26. L1 cache is:
A. Slowest
B. Closest to CPU
C. Largest
D. On disk
Answer: B

27. Cache miss means:
A. Data found in cache
B. Data not found in cache
C. Cache error
D. Cache disabled
Answer: B

28. Cache hit ratio should be:
A. Low
B. High
C. Zero
D. Negative
Answer: B

29. Mapping technique NOT used in cache:
A. Direct mapping
B. Associative mapping
C. Set associative
D. Virtual mapping
Answer: D

30. Cache replacement policy example:
A. FIFO
B. LRU
C. Random
D. All of these
Answer: D


Virtual Memory

31. Virtual memory gives illusion of:
A. Larger memory
B. Smaller CPU
C. Faster disk
D. More cache
Answer: A

32. Virtual memory uses:
A. Hard disk space
B. Register space
C. GPU memory
D. ROM
Answer: A

33. Virtual memory is implemented using:
A. Paging
B. Segmentation
C. Both A and B
D. None
Answer: C

34. Page fault occurs when:
A. Page is found
B. Page not in RAM
C. Cache full
D. Buffer empty
Answer: B

35. Virtual memory is managed by:
A. Compiler
B. Operating System
C. User
D. BIOS
Answer: B

36. Thrashing happens when:
A. Too many page faults
B. CPU idle
C. Disk full
D. Cache hit
Answer: A

37. Page replacement algorithm example:
A. LRU
B. FIFO
C. Optimal
D. All of these
Answer: D

38. Virtual address is converted to physical address using:
A. ALU
B. MMU
C. CU
D. Register
Answer: B

39. Demand paging loads page when:
A. Program starts
B. Needed
C. System boots
D. Cache miss
Answer: B

40. Page table stores:
A. File names
B. Address mapping
C. Cache tags
D. Buffer size
Answer: B


Mixed Concept MCQs

41. Fastest memory among these: Cache
Answer: Cache

42. CAM is used in: Cache lookup
Answer: Cache lookup

43. Buffer mainly handles: I/O speed difference
Answer: I/O speed difference

44. Virtual memory increases: Logical address space
Answer: Logical address space

45. LRU stands for: Least Recently Used
Answer: Least Recently Used

46. Cache uses locality principle: Yes
Answer: Yes

47. Page size is usually: Fixed
Answer: Fixed

48. TLB is related to: Virtual memory
Answer: Virtual memory

49. Cache tag stores: Address info
Answer: Address info

50. Buffering reduces: Waiting time
Answer: Waiting time


Part B —Fill in the Blanks (with Answers)

  1. Associative memory is also called Content Addressable Memory.
  2. Associative memory searches using content.
  3. CAM performs parallel comparison.
  4. Associative memory hardware is complex.
  5. Cache lookup uses associative search.
  6. Buffer memory is temporary storage.
  7. Buffer is used between devices of different speeds.
  8. Keyboard uses a buffer.
  9. Printer queue is called spooling.
  10. Buffer overflow happens when buffer is full.
  11. Cache memory is placed between CPU and main memory.
  12. Cache is faster than RAM.
  13. Cache uses SRAM technology.
  14. Cache stores frequently used data.
  15. L1 cache is closest to CPU.
  16. L2 cache is larger than L1.
  17. Cache hit means data is found.
  18. Cache miss means data is not found.
  19. LRU means Least Recently Used.
  20. FIFO means First In First Out.
  21. Direct mapping maps one block to one line.
  22. Fully associative mapping allows block in any line.
  23. Set associative is combination of direct and associative.
  24. Cache improves access time.
  25. Cache works on locality of reference.
  26. Virtual memory uses disk space.
  27. Virtual memory gives illusion of large memory.
  28. Paging divides memory into pages.
  29. Segmentation divides memory into segments.
  30. Page fault occurs when page is not in RAM.
  31. MMU stands for Memory Management Unit.
  32. Page table stores mapping.
  33. Thrashing means too many page faults.
  34. Demand paging loads pages on demand.
  35. TLB stands for Translation Lookaside Buffer.
  36. Virtual address is also called logical address.
  37. Physical address is generated by MMU.
  38. Replacement policy decides which page to remove.
  39. Optimal replacement gives minimum faults.
  40. Working set reduces thrashing.
  41. Cache tag stores address bits.
  42. Write-through updates memory immediately.
  43. Write-back updates later on replacement.
  44. Double buffering uses two buffers.
  45. Circular buffer is also called ring buffer.
  46. Cache controller manages cache operations.
  47. Hit ratio should be high.
  48. Miss penalty is extra time.
  49. Virtual memory is handled by OS.
  50. Buffer improves data transfer efficiency.

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